EXAM 8011 DETAILS - 8011 NEW BRAINDUMPS QUESTIONS

Exam 8011 Details - 8011 New Braindumps Questions

Exam 8011 Details - 8011 New Braindumps Questions

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Tags: Exam 8011 Details, 8011 New Braindumps Questions, Valid 8011 Study Guide, 8011 Online Training Materials, Latest 8011 Study Guide

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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q99-Q104):

NEW QUESTION # 99
For the purposes of calculating VaR, an interest rate swap can be modeled as a combination of:

  • A. a zero coupon bond and an interest rate swap
  • B. two zero coupon bonds
  • C. a fixed rate bond and a zero coupon bond
  • D. a fixed coupon bond and a floating rate note

Answer: D

Explanation:
In an interest rate swap, the parties agree to exchanging interest rate payments, with one party being a fixed interest rate payer and the other paying floating rates. The party receiving fixed rates and paying floating can be considered to be long a fixed rate bond and short a floating rate note. Therefore an IRS can be modeled as a combination of a fixed coupon bond and a floating rate note. Choice 'b' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following are elements of 'group risk':
I. Market risk
II. Intra-group exposures
III. Reputational contagion
IV. Complex group structures

  • A. II and III
  • B. II, III and IV
  • C. I and IV
  • D. I and II

Answer: B

Explanation:
The term 'group risk' has been defined in the FSA document 08/24 on stress testing as the risk that a firm may be adversely affected by an occurrence (financial or non-financial) in another group entity or an occurrence that affects ther group as a whole. These risks may occur through:
- reputational contagion,
- financial contagion,
- leveraging,
- double or multiple gearing,
- concentrations and large exposures (particularly intra-group).
Thus, the insurance sector may be considered a group, and a firm may suffer just because another group firm has had losses or reputational issues.
The FSA statement goes on to identify some elements of group risk as follows:
- intra-group exposures (credit or operational exposures through outsourcing or service arrangements, as well as more standard business exposures);
- concentration risks (from credit, market or insurance risks which could put a strain on capital resources across entities simultaneously);
- contagion (reputational damage, operational or financial pressures); and
- complex group structures (with dependencies, complex split of responsibilities and accountabilities).
Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer and the rest of the choices are incorrect.


NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following statements is true in respect of a non financial manufacturing firm?
I. Market risk is not relevant to the manufacturing firm as it does not take proprietary positions II. The firm faces market risks as an externality which it must bear and has no control over III. Market risks can make a comparative assessment of profitability over time difficult IV. Market risks for a manufacturing firm are not directionally biased and do not increase the overall risk of the firm as they net to zero over a long term time horizon

  • A. III and IV
  • B. IV only
  • C. I and II
  • D. III only

Answer: D

Explanation:
A non-financial firm such as a manufacturing company faces market risks similar to those faced by financial firms, except perhaps for not being exposed to risks from the equity markets. Non financial firms commonly face interest rate risks in respect of their debts, commodity price risks in respect of their inputs and products, and foreign currency risks in respect of their overseas operations. It is therefore not correct to say that the manufacturing firm does not face market riskbecause it does not take proprietary positions. While decisions on positions may not be actively taken, positions in foreign exchange (eg, through overseas debtors owing foreign currency, or liabilities in foreign currencies to overseas suppliers), commodities (through exposure to the need for raw material and inventory of finished goods) and interest rates (through debt financed, whether at fixed or floating rates) exist and create market risk much in the same way as they would for a proprietary position. Therefore statement I is incorrect.
While the firm faces market risks as an externality (as do financial firms for that matter, though often they seek such exposure to profit from their view on which way the externality will express itself), it is incorrect to say that these risks must be borne. They can be measured and hedged. Therefore statement II is incorrect.
The results of a manufacturing firm will include gains and losses arising from exposure to market risk, and will cloud the true profitability of the business. A firm with significant unhedged overseas sales may show vastly different results across time periods due to the FX gains and losses, making comparative assessment of profitability difficult. Therefore statement III is correct.
Market risks for a manufacturing firm may be directionally biased in terms of exposure, ie there may be a consistent 'long' position in a particular commodity that the firm produces, and a consistent 'short' position in the commodities consumed. In the same way, directional biases may exist in FX or interest rate exposures too.
Regardless of the bias, the existence of market risk exposures increase the volatility of the income stream and make the firm more risky, even though the long term expected returns from such exposures is zero (ie, returns may be zero but standard deviation is not). Therefore statement IV is not correct as market risks form non financial firms do increase the overall risk of the firm.


NEW QUESTION # 102
Which of the following situations are not suitable for applying parametric VaR:
I. Where the portfolio's valuation is linearly dependent upon risk factors II. Where the portfolio consists of non-linear products such as options and large moves are involved III. Where the returns of risk factors are known to be not normally distributed

  • A. I and III
  • B. II and III
  • C. I and II
  • D. All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:
Parametric VaR relies upon reducing a portfolio's positions to risk factors, and estimating the first order changes in portfolio values from each of the risk factors. This is called the delta approximation approach. Risk factors include stock index values, or the PV01 for interest rate products, or volatility for options. This approach can be quite accurate and computationally efficient if the portfolio comprises products whose value behaves linearly to changes in risk factors. This includes long and short positions in equities, commodities and the like.
However, where non-linear products such as options are involved and large moves in the risk factors are anticipated, a delta approximation based valuation may not give accurate results, and the VaR may be misstated. Therefore in such situations parametric VaR is not advised (unless it is extended to include second and third level sensitivities which can bring its own share of problems).
Parametric VaR also assumes that the returns of risk factors are normally distributed - an assumption that is violated in times of market stress. So if it is known that the risk factor returns are not normally distributed, it is not advisable to use parametric VaR.


NEW QUESTION # 103
Ex-ante VaR estimates may differ from realized P&L due to:
I. the effect of intra day trading
II. timing differences in the accounting systems
III. incorrect estimation of VaR parameters
IV. security returns exhibiting mean reversion

  • A. I, II and IV
  • B. I and III
  • C. II, III and IV
  • D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ex-ante VaR calculations can differ from actual realized P&L due to a large number of reasons. I, II and III represent some of them. Mean reversion however has nothing to do with VaR estimates differing from actual P&L. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 104
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